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From: | "James S." <jsmalley@globe.net.nz> |
Date: | Wed, 21 Jun 2000 17:05:47 +1200 |
Hi sharechat readers,
I've read all the previous sharechat posting about
warrants but I still can't work this one out.
FEGSB 29/11/00 $5.50 2:1 warrants currently closed
at .64 (21/06) with a underlying share price of $6.09. Now assuming it
takes two warrants at excise time to get a FEG share this implies a value of
$6.78 ($5.50 + (2 x .64)). I realise that the difference in the implied
price and the actual FEG price is the 'time' effect that a derivative like a
warrant allows.
But what about TELSB 29/03/01 $4.75 2:1
warrants? Their current price (21/06) is .19 and the Telecom underlying
share price is $7.50. Thus using the above logic the implied price is
$5.13 ($4.75 + (2x.19)). Obviously that can't be right!
I would appreciate any help in explaining this to
me.
Thanks in advance
James
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