|
Printable version |
From: | "Fiona Phibbs" <fibz@xtra.co.nz> |
Date: | Sat, 29 May 2004 09:33:59 +1200 |
Hi Snoopy It is just the dividend discount model transformed into the earnings multiplier model or PE. You can source it from any advanced finance text I used Reilly and Brown - Investment Analysis cheers Dean ----- Original Message ----- From: <tennyson@caverock.net.nz> To: <sharechat@sharechat.co.nz> Sent: Friday, 28 May 2004 18:07 Subject: Re: [sharechat] More on the marrket risk premium > Hi Dean, > > > > >As you know the > >P/E multiplier can be restated as - P/E = D1/E1 / (k-g) so > >is therefore greatly influenced by prevailing interest rates > >(inflation), ROEs, and dividend payout ratios. > > > > Sorry you overestimate me. I don't know this. I'm guessing that D1 > are the dividends received in year 1 and E1 represents the total > company earnings in year 1. What are 'k' and 'g' and what is the > source for this formula? > > TIA > > Snoopy > > > > > -- > Message sent by Snoopy > on Pegasus Mail version 4.02 > ---------------------------------- > "Q: If you call a dog tail a leg, how many legs does a dog have?" > "A: Four. Calling a tail a leg doesn't make it a leg." > > > > -------------------------------------------------------------------------- -- > To remove yourself from this list, please use the form at > http://www.sharechat.co.nz/chat/forum/ > ---------------------------------------------------------------------------- To remove yourself from this list, please use the form at http://www.sharechat.co.nz/chat/forum/
References
|